Hello everyone. Welcome back to one more article for PEBC evaluating exam practice questions. Each one of these articles is designed for a 15 to 20-minute read. Don’t miss the additional notes or revisions mentioned in the explanation section of each answer.
Please revise these questions 2 to 3 times or until you are confident—all the best for your exams.
Table of Contents for PEBC evaluating exam – Question set #5
Question 1: Out of the following diseases, which one is preventable by vaccination?
A. AIDS
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pertussis
D. Typhoid
E. Encephalopathy
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Answer: C
Quick revision: Pertussis for PEBC evaluating exam
What is Pertussis
Pertussis is a highly contagious respiratory tract infection caused by Bordetella pertussis. It is also known as whooping cough.
The most prominent symptom of Pertussis is a high-pitched intake of breath which sounds like a ‘whoop’.
Question 2: Which vaccine is given at the age of 12 – 18 months and a booster dose at the age of 4 – 6 years?
A. DTap
B. Influenza
C. Sabine Polio
D. Rotavirus
E. MMR
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Answer: E
Varicella and MMR are the 2 vaccines that are given at the age of 12 – 18 months and 4 – 6 years.
Question 3: Which part of the body does the sciatic nerve innervate?
A. Skin and muscles surrounding the Humerus
B. Base of the face and cheeks
C. Posterior portion of the thigh
D. Skin and muscles surrounding capitate
E. Innervates myocardium and control myocardial rate and rythm
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Answer: C
The humerus is a bone in the forearm, Capitate is a bone in the wrist, Trigeminal nerve innervates the face, forehead, and cheeks. The sciatic nerve is a part of the sacral plexxus
Question 4: Which of the following statements about relative risk reduction (RRR) is true?
A. RRR is unaffected by the baseline risk of the event.
B. RRR is always greater than absolute risk reduction (ARR).
C. RRR provides an estimate of the treatment's effect size relative to the control.
D. RRR can only be calculated for binary outcomes.
E. RRR is equivalent to the number needed to treat (NNT).
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Answer: C
Question 5: Which of the following statements describes the best reason for employing blinding in a clinical trial?
A) Ensure participants receive the correct treatment
B) Prevent the investigators from knowing the results
C) Reduce placebo effects and increases drug effects
D) Minimize bias in treatment assessment and data collection
E) Blinding permits participants to switch treatments freely
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Answer: D
Question 6: Which of the following cell mechanisms involves phagocytosis as a defensive mechanism of the body?
A. Thrombocytes during the development phase in bone marrow
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
E. RBC
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Answer: B
Question 7: Which of the following methods is employed to remove pyrogens from parenteral preparations?
A. The Rabbit Pyrogen Test method
B. Distillation
C. Terminal sterilisation with moist heat
D. Double distillation
E. Filtration
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Answer: D
Question 8: What are the symptoms of Schizophrenia?
A. Delusion and halluciantion
B. Aphaisa
C. Anomia
D. Excessive sleeping or not sleeping at all
E. Restlessness and agitation
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Answer: A
Question 9: Why of the following is a diagnostic test for pneumonia?
A. Fecal Occult Blood Test
B. Urine test to detect infection
C. Semen analysis
D. Biposy
E. Chest X ray
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Answer: E
A chest X-ray is done to look for the location and extent of inflammation in the lungs.
Question 10: Which of the following statements is not correct for the Dukoral oral vaccine?
A. Dukoral vaccine is effective against E. coli and Vibrio cholera
B. Cannot be given to immunocompromised individuals
C. Dukoral is the only inactivated vaccine which can be given to immunocompromised patients
D.Dukoral needs 2 doses in order to be effective
E. Dukoral is suitable for childern above 2 years
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Answer: C
Dukoral cannot be given to immunocompromised patients.
Question 11: Which of the following types of immunity is acquired from vaccinations?
A) Passive immunity
B) Innate immunity
C) Active immunity
D) Natural immunity
E) Autoimmune immunity
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Answer: C
Quick revision: Active vs Passive immunity for PEBC evaluating exam
What is the difference between active and passive immunity?
Active immunity: Antigen enters the body and the body responds by making its own antibodies and B-memory cells. Active immunity has slow onset but a long duration of action.
Passive immunity: Antibodies are administered directly to provide short-term or temporary immunity. This is fast-acting since preformed antibodies are administered in the body.
Question 12: Which of the following cells have clonal selection?
A. RBC
B. B - cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Neutrphils
E. Platelets
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Answer: B
The antigen selects which lymphocyte will undergo clonal expansion and produce lymphocytes with the same type of antigen receptors.
Question 13: If clearance of a drug remains constant and the volume of distribution increases, which of the following statements about the drug’s half-life is true?
A. Cannot be mathematically determined.
B. Half-life of the drug increases
C. Half-life of the drug decreases
D. Kel is required to determine the half-life
E. Cannot be determined without ionisation constant
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Answer: B
Question 14: The volume of distribution for a drug is 12 liters and it’s plasma clearance is 4 L/hour. What is the shelf life of the drug?
A. 19.81 hours
B. 21.11 hours
C. 2.079 hours
D. 20.79 hours
E. 12.4 hours
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Answer: A
Step 1: Plug in values for Vd and Cl in the formula t1/2 = 0.693 x (Vd/Cl) = 0.693 x 12/4 = 2.079 hours
Step 2: Calculate shelf life using the formula t90 = t1/2/0.105 = 2.08/0.105 = 19.81 hours
Most of the calculations from pharmacokinetics will be a 2 step calculation.
Question 15: JT comes to the pharmacy with a new prescription of Tramadol for her 78-year-old mother. While counseling, the pharmacist came to know that JT’s mom has a non-anaphylactic allergy to tramadol. JT also mentioned that his mom did not experience any allergy symptoms when she used Tapentadol the last time her doctor prescribed the drug. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A. Dispense Tramadol as the allergy is non-anaphylactic in nature
B. Change the drug to Tapentadol under the principle of 'adapting the prescription'
C. Call the doctor and let him know about this new information and ask to change the drug
D. Dispense the Rx and recommend an OTC anti-histaminic
E. Do not dispense tramadol and recomment Tylenol
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Answer: C
Adapting the prescription is when a pharmacist changes the dose, dosage form, or drug based on the pharmacist’s assessment of the patient. A pharmacist does not have the authority to change the prescription of a narcotic, controlled, or targeted drug. Hence, the patient has to be referred back to the doctor.
Question 16: which of the following is a risk factor for Afib?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Tuberculosis
C. HIV
D. Diabetes Mellitus
E. Encephalopathy
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Answer: A
Hyperthyroidism is a risk factor for Afib
Quick revision for symptoms of Hyperthyroidism:
| Mnemonic | THYROID RACING |
| T | Tachycardia |
| H | Heat |
| Y | Weight Loss |
| R | Restlessness |
| O | Oligomenorrhea |
| I | Insomnia |
| D | Diarrhea |
| R | Racing thoughts |
| A | Anxiety |
| C | Cold skin due to sweating |
| I | Insomnia |
| N | Nervousness |
| G | Goiter |
Question 17: JT is a pregnant woman. She just got diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which of the following is the most suitable drug for JT?
A. Meformin
B. Empagliflozin
C. Semaglutide
D. Glyburide
E. Insulin
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Answer: E
Metformin and Glyburide are approved for use in pregnancy but switch to insulin as soon as you can. If you are taking metformin or glyburide, continue taking them and until you see your doctor.
TIP: All insulin are schedule II (Behind The Counter or BTC) and pharmacist can recommend without a prescription.
Question 17: Which of the following drugs cause SLE?
A. Meformin
B. Infliximab
C. Atorvastatin
D. Valproic acid
E. Carbidopa
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Answer: B
Mnemonic for drugs that cause SLE: HIPPIE-Q
H – Hydralazine, I – Isoniazid, P – Procainamide, P – Phenytoin, I – Infliximab, E – Etanercept, Q – Quinidine
Question 18: Which of the following statement is true about a case-control study?
A. A study that follows a group of people over time to assess the effects of certain exposures.
B. A study that randomly assigns participants to treatment or control groups to evaluate the effect of interventions.
C. A study that compares individuals with a specific condition (cases) to individuals without the condition (controls) to identify risk factors.
D. A study that examines the incidence and prevalence of diseases in a population at a single point in time.
E. A study that systematically reviews and analyzes multiple research studies on a particular topic.
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Answer: C
Question 19: Which of the following are the examples of topical antihistaminics?
A. Diclofenac
B. Capsaicin
C. Bacitracin
D. Levofloxacin
E. Oloptadine
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Answer: E
Question 20: How are participants selected in a randomized clinical trial?
A. By a computer generated code which is not dependent on any criteria
B. Individually grouped by investigator
C. Carefully grouped by the sponsor
D. Grouped on the basis of the preexisting conditions
E. Participants can choose the group
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Answer: A
Pharmacy evaluating exam – Question set #4
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