Hello everyone. Welcome back to one more article for PEBC evaluating exam practice questions. Each one of these articles is designed for a 15 to 20-minute read. Don’t miss the additional notes or revisions mentioned in the explanation section of each answer.
Please revise these questions 2 to 3 times or until you are confident—all the best for your exams.
Table of Contents
PEBC evaluating exam practice questions list
Question 1: What is the mechanism of action of Pioglitazone?
A. PPAR γ agonist
B. PPAR γ antagoinst
C. PPARα agonist
D. PPARα agonist
E. PPAR γ antagonist and PPARα agonist
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Answer: A
PPARγ agonist examples – Pioglitazone and rosiglitazone. Both are thiazolidinediones.
Pioglitazone also has PPARα agonist activity but to a minimal extent. Its anti-diabetic action however comes only from PPARγ agonist activity.
PPAR (Peroxisome Proliferator-activated receptor) activates nuclear genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism and adipocyte differentiation.
Comparison of PPARγ and PPARα agonists for quick revision
| PPARγ agonist | PPARα agonist | |
| Examples | Pioglitazone and rosiglitazone | Gemfibrozil, Benzafibrate, and Fenofibrate |
| Use | Antidiabetic | Antihyperlipidemic |
| Mechanism of action | Modulates the transcription of the genes involved in the control of glucose and lipid metabolism in the muscle, adipose tissue, and the liver | PPAR-α stimulates the uptake of fatty acids by cells and catabolism by beta-oxidation pathways. This cause a reduction in fatty acid and TG synthesis, leading to decreased secretion of TG-rich VLDL particles |
| Side effects | – Weight gain, edema, dyslipidemia – Pioglitazone increases the risk of bladder cancer and also reduces LDL (due to PPARα agonist activity) | – Increased excretion of cholesterol in bile leading to cholelithiasis which is a predisposing factor for gall stone. Discontinue the drug if tested positive. – Increased risk of Myopathy when combined with statins. – Gemfibrozil and Colchicine increases myopathy while Fenofibrate has uricosuric effect. |
Question 2: What is workflow analysis?
A. The process of identifying and assessing the needs of an organization.
B. The process of designing and evaluating the tasks and activities within a work process.
C. The study of individual worker performance.
D. The implementation of new technologies in a business.
E. The creation of marketing strategies to enhance product sales.
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Answer: B
What is workflow analysis?
Workflow analysis is a process of evaluating the sequence of tasks and activities that produce a specific workflow outcome.
Reasons to do a workflow analysis
- To identify bottlenecks, redundancies, and waste
- To improve efficiency and profitability
- To identify staffing needs
- To standardize the process and reduce the risk of errors or minimize errors
- To improve customer experience
How to conduct workflow analysis?
- Identify and evaluate the sequence of steps
- Gather data
- Analyze data
- Map the current workflow
- Implement change
The image shows a typical workflow analysis in a pharmacy for a single customer.
Question 3: A community pharmacy has recently seen growth in customer footfall and the manager is interviewing potential candidates for pharmacy assistant duties. which of the following is the most appropriate question to ask?
A. Do you have a second job?
B. Do you drive?
C. How many kids do you have?
D. Have you committed any crime?
E. Will you be bringing your luch at work?
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Answer: D
Hint: If you check the remaining options, it has nothing to do with the pharmacy business itself and are more personal in nature. So the best option is D. Even though background check is usually done by businesses before hiring an individual, this question can still be asked in an interview to evaluate honesty and integrity of the person.
Question 4: Tadalafil use is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
A. Hepatic impairment
B. HLA-B 1701 allele
C. Renal impairment
D. Elevated pancreatic enzymes
E. Cystic fibrosis
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Answer: A
Quick revision
Examples of PDE5 inhibitors: Sildenafil, Vardenafil, and Tadalafil.
Side effects: Priapism and blue-green vision.
The duration of action of Tadalafil is 35 hours and should not be taken more than every 2nd day. Tadalafil is not influenced by food and hence can be taken with or without food.
Question 5: JT is prescribed Terazosin for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. When can he expect the symptoms to start subsiding?
A. 15 minutes
B. 2 weeks
C. 24 hours
D. 1-2 weeks
E. 4-6 weeks
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Answer: B
| Terazosin | Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia | Hypertension |
| Onset of action | 2 weeks | 15 minutes |
| Duration of action | 24 hours | 24 hours |
| Peak response | 4 – 6 weeks | 2 – 3 hours |
Question 6: JT is a young woman who was recently diagnosed with depression. She does not have any other medical conditions. About a year ago, she suffered a minor fracture in her left ankle. Her doctor prescribed her Sertraline for depression. Answer the following questions based on the information given.
Question 6.1: What is the mechanism of action of Sertraline?
A. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Promoter
B. Serotonin Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
C. Serotonin modulator
D. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
E. Serotonin Alpha 2 receptor inhibitor
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Answer: D
Tip: Read the options carefully. Option A says ‘promoter’.
Question 6.2: When can JT expect to see a change in her symptoms?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 24 - 48 hours
C. 4 - 6 weeks
D. 3 months
E. within 24 hours
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Answer: A
All antidepressants effect begin from 2 weeks, and optimal effect in 4 – 6 weeks
Question 6.3: When can JT expect to see a mood change effect?
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 24 - 48 hours
C. 4 - 6 weeks
D. 3 months
E. within 24 hours
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Answer: C
Insomnia is 1-2 weeks and mood change effect is 4 to 6 weeks
Question 6.4: JT comes to pharmacy with a new prescription of clarithromycin for skin infection. What is the pharmacist’s concern?
A. Torsade de pointes - do not dispense. Call doctor to change the drug
B. No problem - dispense the prescription
C. Separate both drugs by 2 hours
D. Take Sertraline in morning and Clarithromycin in evening
E. Take Clarithromycin with iron supplement
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Answer: A
Question 7: In IR spectroscopy, which type of molecular vibration involves a change in the bond angle?
A. Stretching
B. Bending
C. Rotational
D. Translational
E. Torsional
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Answer: B
A change in the angle between two bonds is known as a bending vibration. Four bending vibrations are: wagging, twisting, rocking, and scissoring.
The following 2 questions were asked as case questions. But here I have kept it simple as there’s a lot of information in previous questions.
Question 8: Beta amyloid plaques are found in which dementia disease?
A. Parkinson's dementia
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Lewy body dementia
E. Vascular dementia
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Answer: B
Quick revision
Alzheimer’s disease: Accumulation of clumps of protein as beta-amyloid plaques and Tao tangles. Mnemonic is BAT (B = beta-amyloid plaques, A = Alzheimer’s disease, and T = Tao tangles).
Lewy bodies or alpha-synuclein proteins are associated with Parkinson’s or Lewy body dementia.
Question 9: Out of the following, which is the best option to manage delirium in a patient with Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Haloperidol
B. Rivastigmine
C. Galantamine
D. Donepezil
E. Memantine
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Answer: D
Notes:
Delirium
Delirium is a change in mental abilities. A person suffering from delirium is often confused and lacks awareness about the surroundings.
Disorientation, memory loss, poor concentration, sleepiness, hallucination, and agitation or restlessness are some of the symptoms.
Mnemonic for causes of Delirium “MOVE STUPID”.
M – Metabolic (electrolyte imbalance, hypoglycemia, liver or kidney failure) O – Oxygen (hypoxia, anemia, carbon monoxide poisoning) V – Vascular (stroke, hypertensive encephalopathy) E – Endocrine (thyroid, adrenal, glucose disturbances)
S – Seizures (postictal state) T – Trauma (head injury, surgery) U – Uremia (renal failure) P – Psychiatric (mania, depression) I – Infection (systemic or CNS) D – Drugs (new medications, withdrawal, intoxication)
Question 10: Which of the following is a common method to measure the result of an ELISA?
A. Flow cytometry
B. Mass spectrometry
C. UV-Vis spectrophotometry
D. Fluorescence microscopy
E. Gel electrophoresis
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Answer: C
Question 11: What is the most basic amino acid? – Important question
A. Aspartate
B. Glutamate
C. Arginine
D. Histidine
E. Lysine
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Answer: C
Arginine is the most basic amino acid. The other basic amino acids are Lysine and Histidine.
Aspartate and Glutamate are 2 acidic amino acids.
Tip: Any name that ends in ‘-ate’ is an acid or has a carboxylic acid (‘COOH) functional group. For example – Aspartate is Aspartic acid, Glutamate is Glutamic acid, and Acetate is acetic acid.
Question 12: In gel electrophoresis, which of the following movement is observed for DNA fragments?
A. Cathode because DNA is positively charged
B. Anode because DNA is negatively charged
C. Cathode because DNA is negatively charged
D. Anode because DNA is positively charged
E. Neutral electrode because DNA has no charge
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Answer: B
Gel electrophoresis is an important topic. Almost every year, 1 question has been asked from this topic.
Question 13: Why is it advisable to apply pressure to the nasal bridge after instilling an eye drop?
A. To minimize systemic absorption of the drug
B. To minimize irritation of the eyelids
C. Helps with the permeation of the drug through Cornea
D. To increase systemic absorption of the drug for maximum effect
E. It is not recommended to apply pressure to the nasal bridge after instilling an eye drop
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Answer: A
Question 14: What is the mechanism of action of Febuxostat?
A. 5 alpha reductase type II inhibitor
B. 5 alpha reductase type II promoter
C. Incretin analog
D. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
E. DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor
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Answer: D
Quick Revision:
Allopurinol and Febuxostat – both are Xanthine oxidase inhibitors. If a person is allergic to Allopurinol, than he/she can be given Febuxostat and vice versa. This is because both the drugs are chemically distinct from each other.
Contraindicated with Azathioprine, Mercaptopurine, and Theophylline.
Febuxostat is only used if Allopurinol is not suitable.
Question 15: What is the function of transerases?
A. Splitting chemicals into small molecules without using water
B. Rearrangement of atoms within a molecule
C. Transfer electrons or hydrogen atom from one molecuel to another
D. Moving a functional group from one molecule to other
E. Joining two molecules by the formation of new bonds
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Answer: D
Examples of transferases are phosphokinases, transaminases, Glutathione s – transferase, and acetyl transferase
Question 16: Which of the following groups of individuals are not covered by the federal government?
A. Ontario police
B. Natives and first nation
C. Inmates
D. Refugees
E. RCMP
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Answer: A
Question 17: Which of the following statement is true about INR?
A. Enoxaparin has the highest impact on INR
B. aPTT should be monitored with Warfarin
C. INR in therapeutic range means there is no bleeding
D. Idarucizumab is the drug of choice to bring INR in therapeutic range
E. Warfarin is the drug of choice to bring INR in therapeutic range
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Answer: C
Question 18: What is the main function of pantothenic acid?
A. Precursor for coenzyme Flavin Mono Nucleotide (FMN)
B. Required for the synthesis of ATP
C. Plays an important role in the functioning of RNA polymerase
D. Synthesis of coenzyme A
E. Necessary for DNA synthesis
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Answer: D
Question 19: What is the primary purpose of HPLC?
A. To separate and quantify components in a mixture based on their molecular weight
B. To amplify DNA sequences
C. To measure the concentration of proteins
D. To analyze the sequence of nucleotides in DNA
E. To separate and quantify components in a mixture based on their chemical properties
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Answer: E
evaluating exam PEBC questions – Question Set #2
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