Welcome back to yet another question set titled ‘PEBC evaluating exam sample questions #12’
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Table of Contents for PEBC evaluating exam sample questions #12
PEBC evaluating exam sample questions #12
Question 1: Which of the following statements is true regarding the application of DEET 30 insect repellent and sunscreen?
A. Apply DEET 30 before sunscreen
B. Apply sunscreen before DEET 30
C. Mix DEET 30 and sunscreen together and apply as a single layer
D. DEET 30 should be applied only in the evening, while sunscreen is applied only in the morning
E. It does not matter in which order DEET 30 and sunscreen are applied
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Answer: B
DEET is N, N diethyl metatoluamide. DEET may lower sunscreen’s efficacy. If application of DEET is delayed after sunscreen has been applied, the sunscreen product maintains more of its original SPF.
Question 2: Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of ADHD patients with a history of cocaine abuse?
A. Amphetamine
B. Methylphenidate
C. Atomoxetine
D. Dexamphetamine
E. Meperidine
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Answer: C
CNS stimulants are contraindicated in treating ADHD in a patient with a history of drug abuse.
Atomoxetine is approved to treat ADHD in a patient with a history of drug abuse.
What is the mechanism of action of Atomoxetine?
Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and does not inhibit dopamine reuptake.
Note: Atomoxetine inhibits the uptake of dopamine in the prefrontal cortex (PFC). This part of the brain is not associated with addiction.
Question 3: Most side effects of donepezil are related to which system of the body?
A. Respiratory system
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Nervous system
D. Musculoskeletal system
E. Gastrointestinal system
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Answer: E
Donepezil is a cholinergic drug (Reversible choline esterase inhibitor type of quaternary alcohol). Menomonic for its side effects is ‘WET’ or ‘DUMBELS’.
Question 4: Which of the following is a significant risk factor for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Diabetes
B. Hypertension
C. Long periods of immobility
D. Hernia repair surgery
E. High fluid intake
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Answer: C
Question 5: A 55-year-old patient with a long history of untreated hypertension presents to the clinic. The patient has been experiencing fatigue, shortness of breath, and occasional chest pain. Which of the following conditions is most likely to develop in this patient due to prolonged untreated hypertension?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Chronic bronchitis
E. Peptic ulcer disease
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Answer: C
Explanation
Left ventricular hypertrophy is a thickening of the wall of the heart’s main pumping chamber.
Left ventricular hypertrophy increases the risk of myocardial ischemia and infarction, heart failure, dysrhythmias, or even sudden death.
Question 6: A 40-year-old patient with newly diagnosed HIV infection presents to the clinic for evaluation. The patient’s CD4 count is found to be significantly low, indicating advanced immunosuppression. Based on the patient’s immunocompromised state, which opportunistic viral infection is most commonly associated with HIV?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Human papillomavirus
E. Varicella-zoster virus
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Answer: C
Question 7: A 35-year-old HIV-positive patient presents with complaints of blurry vision and floaters in the right eye. Upon examination, ophthalmoscopy reveals characteristic retinal lesions indicative of retinitis. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Syncytial virus
C. Varicella virus
D. Epstein-Barr virus
E. Human herpesvirus 8
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Answer: A
Treatment: Valganciclovir po or iv, Ganciclovir iv, Foscarnet iv.
For maintenance: Valganciclovir po, Foscarnet iv, Cidofovir iv
Question 8: Identify the structure of the drug.
A. Zolpidem
B. Zopiclone
C. Eszopiclone
D. Barbiturates
E. Benzodiazepines
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Answer: E
Question 9: A 54-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with BPH. He is taking the following medication captopril, sildenafil for his erectile dysfunction, and Hydrochlorothiazide. He has no allergy but has postural hypotension but not high. What drug you should recommend for this
patient?
A. Finasteride
B. Tamsulosin
C. Dutasteride
D. Doxazosin
E. Prazosin
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Answer: B
Critical thinking
Both Tamsulosin and Finasteride cause sexual dysfunction. But Finasteride reduces testosterone which reduces libido. Hence, Tamsulosin is the better option in this case.
Question 10: Which blotting technique is used to separate and detect specific proteins in a sample?
A. Northern blot
B. Southern blot
C. Eastern blot
D. Western blot
E. Southern blot II
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Answer: D
| Blotting Technique | Use |
| Northern blot | Detection of RNA molecules |
| Southern blot | Detection of DNA sequences |
| Eastern blot | Detection of post-translational modifications of proteins |
| Western blot | Detection of specific proteins in a sample using antibodies |
Question 11: Which structures are contained within the dorsal cavity?
A. Lungs
B. Teeth
C. Spinal cord
D. Bladder
E. Heart
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Answer: C
Question 12: A prescription says to take 15 mg of morphine po q4h. Below is a chart with a recommended initial Duragesic (fentanyl) dose based upon oral morphine dose, how many 25 mcg/hr Duragesic patch are required to fill a 9-day supply?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 7
D. 10
E. 12
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Answer: A
Tip: 1 patch is used for 3 days. so, for 9 days, dispatch 3 patches.
Now, Morphine tab 15 mg q4h means 15 * 6 = 90 mg/day. This dose is in the range of 25 mcg/hour.
Reference for the chart: Link
Question 13: Which type of infection is most commonly observed in hepatic transplant patients due to immunosuppressive therapy?
A. Urinary tract infections
B. Influenza
C. Tuberculosis
D. Candidiasis
E. Gastric ulcers
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Answer: D
viral
Cytomegalovirus
Epstein-Barr Virus
Herpes Simplex Virus and Varicella Zoster Virus
Human Herpesvirus 6 and 7
Adenovirus
Fungal
Candidiais is the most common fungal infection in liver transplantation.
Aspergillosis is the second most common fungal infection after liver transplantation
Question 14: Which of the following is a known cause of neural tube defects?
A. Alcohol
B. Valproic acid
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Fentanyl
E. Morphine
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Answer: B
High risk factors: Maternal or paternal personal NTD history or a previous NTD pregnancy.
Moderate risk factors:
- Maternal diabetes, maternal kidney dialysis
- Maternal use of folate-inhibiting medications (carbamazepine, cholestyramine, metformin,
- methotrexate, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, sulfasalazine, triamterene,
- trimethoprim, valproic acid)
- Maternal GI malabsorption conditions (e.g., Crohn disease, active celiac disease, gastric
- bypass surgery).
Question 15: Which of the following is an essential aspect of counseling that demonstrates empathy?
A. Providing only factual information
B. Active listening and reflecting back emotions
C. Taking a directive approach
D. Showing minimal emotional engagement
E. Ignoring the patient's feelings
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Answer: B
Empathy means you as a pharmacist understand how the patient’s problems and you will help the patient to reduce the pain and suffering. A pharmacist can show empathy with following 4 actions:
- Feeling what the talker feels
- A knowledge what the other person says
- Listening with an open mind
- Understand what the other person says
Question 16: Which type of cell forms the output neurons of the retina and sends visual information to the brain via the optic nerve?
A. Bipolar cells
B. Rod cells
C. Ganglion cells
D. Cone cells
E. Horizontal cells
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Answer: C
| Cell Type | Function |
| Ganglion Cells | Output neurons of the retina; transmit visual information from retina to brain via optic nerve. |
| Müller Cells | Glial cells providing structural support and regulating the extracellular environment in the retina. |
| Astrocytes | Glial cells in optic nerve; support neurons and help maintain the blood-brain barrier. |
Question 17: Which receptors does quetiapine primarily act upon?
A. 5HT1A
B. 5HT2A
C. D2
D. 5HT1A and D2
E. 5HT2A and D2
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Answer: E
Quetiapine effectively binds 5HT2a, H1, alpha1. alpha2 in the brain and has a low affinity to D2
receptors.
Question 18: A 55-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension presents to the clinic with complaints of difficulty achieving and maintaining erections during sexual activity. He mentions that this issue has been progressively worsening over the past year, despite taking amlodipine, losartan, and hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Answer the following questions based on the given information.
Question 18.1: What is the probable connection between the patient’s hypertension and his erectile dysfunction?
A. Hypertension is unrelated to erectile dysfunction
B. Hypertension is causing vascular damage leading to erectile dysfunction
C. Hypertension medications directly cause erectile dysfunction
D. Erectile dysfunction is causing hypertension
E. Hypertension and erectile dysfunction are coincidental conditions
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Answer: B
Hypertension often causes vascular damage, leading to reduced blood flow to the penis, a common cause of erectile dysfunction in hypertensive patients.
Question 18.2: Considering the patient’s current hypertension medications, which class of drug among them is most commonly associated with erectile dysfunction as a potential side effect?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
C. Diuretics
D. Beta-blockers
E. ACE inhibitors
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Answer: D
Question 18.3: What lifestyle modifications would you recommend to this patient to help improve erectile function while managing his hypertension?
A. Increase salt intake
B. Reduce physical activity
C. Quit smoking
D. Increase alcohol consumption
E. Avoid fruits and vegetables
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Answer: C
Question 19: Which type of eye drops is associated with an increased risk of causing cataracts?
A. Alpha blockers
B. Beta blockers
C. Corticosteroids
D. Antihistamines
E. Prostaglandin analogues
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Answer: C
Question 20: A 35-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy with a prescription of recently diagnosed mild asthma. Which of the following is the correct answer?
A. Fluticasone
B. Amoxicillin
C. Avoid physical activity
D. Albuterol
E. Perform bronchoscopy
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Answer: D
Albuterol = Salbutamol
Question 21: Which process involves the conversion of glucose to pyruvate, resulting in the production of ATP?
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogen synthesis
E. Oxidative phosphorylation
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Answer: A
Under anaerobic conditions: Glycolysis involves the conversion of glucose to lactate. This can occur in cells without mitochondria.
Under aerobic conditions: Glycolysis involves the conversion of glucose to pyruvate (pyruvic acid), this occurs in mitochondria.
Question 22: In DNA, what type of bond is found between the deoxyribose sugar and the phosphate group?
A. A polar bond
B. An ionic bond
C. A hydrogen bond
D. A covalent bond
E. A van der Waals bond
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Answer: D
This covalent bond is a phosphodiester bond.
Question 23: What is the mechanism of action of Adalimumab?
A. Inhibits interleukin-1 signaling
B. Blocks IL-6 receptors
C. Inhibits tumor necrosis factor-alpha
D. Enhances TNF-α production
E. Inhibits TNF-β signaling
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Answer: C
Question 24: All these microorganisms classified as nocosomial bacteria, except:
A. Enterobacteria
B. Legionella
C. Pseudomonas
D. Moraxella catarrhalis
E. Staphylococcus aureus
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Answer: D
| Nosocomial Microorganism | Infections |
| Staphylococcus aureus | Skin infections, pneumonia, bloodstream infections (including MRSA). |
| Enterococcus species | Urinary tract infections (UTIs), bacteremia, surgical site infections. |
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa | Wound infections, urinary tract infections, respiratory infections. |
| Escherichia coli (E. coli) | UTIs, surgical site infections, bloodstream infections. |
| Klebsiella pneumoniae | Pneumonia, bloodstream infections. |
| Acinetobacter baumannii | Ventilator-associated pneumonia, bloodstream infections. |
| Clostridium difficile | Antibiotic-associated diarrhea, colitis. |
| Candida species | Fungal infections, particularly in immunocompromised patients. |
Mnemonic to remember the names: Stop (Staph) Asking (Acineto) for Fake (Pseudo) Entry (Entero) in Club (Kleb) with E (E. coli) Class (Clostridium) car (Candida).
Most of the time legionella is community-acquired. Under certain circumstances, it can cause nosocomial infection.
Question 25: Breathing centre is located in which part of the brain?
A. Brain stem
B. Thalamus
C. Hippocampus
D. Cerebrum
E. Frontal lobe
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Answer: A
| Brainstem Component | Location | Function |
| Medulla Oblongata | Lowest part of brainstem, above the spinal cord | Regulates vital autonomic functions (breathing, heart rate, digestion, etc.). |
| Pons | Above the medulla oblongata, below the midbrain | Relays signals between the cerebrum and cerebellum; helps control breathing. |
| Midbrain | Above the pons | Processes sensory information; controls motor functions, vision, hearing, and arousal. |
Question 26: Which of the following is the right option for Canadian health act?
A. Accessibility, comprehensiveness, affordability
B. Portability, universality, affordability, accessibility
C. Universality, public administration, accessibility
D. proftibility, Universality, public administration
E. public administration, accessibility, sustainability
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Answer: C
Question 27: What is the mechanism of action of Sitagliptin?
A. Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 (DPP-4) Inhibitors
B. Glucagon-Like Peptide-1 (GLP-1) Agonists
C. Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) Inhibitors
D. Insulin Sensitizers
E. Sulfonylureas
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Answer: A
Question 28: A small group of selected pharmacists negotiate the terms with a union. Which of the following best describes this negotiation?
A. Collective bargaining
B. Petition
C. Mediation
D. Haggling
E. Being cheap
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Answer: A
Question 29: Which receptor does Denosumab works on?
A. Interluken 1
B. Interluken 6
C RANK Ligand Inhibitors
D. TNF Inhibitors
E. IL - 11 inhibitor
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Answer: C
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