PEBC evaluating exam questions #7

Welcome back to yet another blog post to practice a few more PEBC evaluating exam questions.

As with all the previously published question sets for PEBC evaluating exam questions, this one contains additional notes, revision tips, and some mnemonics. And yes, this one is also worth 10 to 15 minutes of reading time. Please read, memorize, and revise these questions until you are confident.

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Question 1: Which of the following is true for the Canadian Health Act?

A. Universality, Priority, Accessibility, Comprehensiveness, Public administration
B. Equality, Provinciality, Accessibility, Portability, Comprehensiveness
C. Universility, Public administration, Portability, Accessibility, Comprehensiveness
D. Provinciality, Universality, Equality, Priority, Immobility
E. Priority, Groupability, Universailty, Comprehensiveness, Public administration

Question 2: What happens when the ethinyl group is added to estrogen?

A. Higher bioavailability and increased resistance to metabolism
B. Lower bioavailability due to increased metabolism
C. Makes it suitable for iv administration
D. Makes it suitable for use in patients with history of deep vein thrombosis
E. Reduces the side effects of estorgen

Question 3: A patient needs to achieve a target plasma concentration of 4 mg/L of a drug. The volume of distribution (Vd) is 60 L, and the bioavailability (F) is 80%. What is the loading dose?

A. 600 mg
B. 480 mg
C. 300 mg
D. 520 mg
E. 450 mg

Question 4: A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new vaccine in preventing influenza infection. The study included 200 people who took the vaccine and 200 people who were administered distilled water for injection to induce a placebo effect. In the vaccine group, 10 people developed the disease. In the unvaccinated group, 40 people developed the disease. Based on the given information, answer the following questions

Question 4.1: What is the relative risk (RR) of developing the disease in those individuals who are vaccinated in comparison to ones who are not vaccinated?

A. 0.25
B. 0.30
C. 0.20
D. 1.10
E. 0.90

Question 4.2: What is the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one additional case of the disease?

A. 35
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
E. 5

Question 5: JT comes to pharmacy with the following prescription

Rx

Tramadol 100 mg q6h 1 tab PRN F10d, Mitte 40 tab, R 3

Choose the correct answer from the following options

A. Tramadol is prescribed every 8 hours
B. Tramadol should not be taken for more than 7 days
C. Refills are not allowed
D. Refills are allowed only if interval is mentioned
E. No problem with prescription

Question 6: JT comes to the pharmacy complaining that he is experiencing difficulty in swallowing phenytoin capsules. He inquired if a liquid dosage form is available for his medicine. Currently, JT is taking 100 mg of phenytoin per dose. Which of the following statements is true?

A. 23 ml of 4 mg/ml of phenytoin suspension per dose
B. 25 ml of 4 mg/ml of phenytoin suspension per dose
C. 30 ml of 4 mg/ml of phenytoin suspension per dose
D. Refer to a doctor as Pharmacist cannot change phenytoin capsules
E. Explain the patient that nausea will eventually go away

Question 7: Calculate the dosage form of subcutaneous morphine 5 mg qid to oral morphine. The bioavailability of subcutaneous morphine is twice that of the oral form.

A. 5 mg oral morphine q6h
B. 10 mg oral morphine q4h
C. 2.5 mg oral morphine every 6 hours
D. 40 mg oral morphine per day in 6 divided doses
E. 40 mg oral morphine per day in 4 divided doses

Question 8: What is the mechanism of action of Omalizumab?

A. inhibits the binding of IgE antibodies to IgE receptors
B. B-cell depletor
C. TNF alpha inhibitor
D. IL - 1 inhibitor
E. IL - 5 inhibitor

Question 9: Individuals can be protected by vaccination against which of the following microorganism-caused diseases?

A. Treponema palladium
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Leishmania species
E. Human immunodeficiency virus

Question 10: A drug has two structures which are mirror images of each other. Which type of isomerism is this?

A. Diastereomers
B. Geometric isomers
C. Conformational isomers
D. Constitutional isomers
E. Enantiomers

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Question 11: JT is a pregnant woman with asymptomatic bacteriuria. She has a history of experiencing hives and severe rash upon taking penicillin. The bacterial culture was sensitive to nitrofurantoin, cloxacillin, cephalosporin, and amoxicillin. Answer the following questions based on the information provided.

Question 11.1: Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for JT?

A. No need for medicines as JT does not have any symptoms
B. Nitrofurantoin for 7 days
C. Cephalosporin for 14 days
D. Amoxicillin for 10 days
E. Pain killer for her burning sensation after urination

Question 11.2: She came later to the pharmacy complaining about the symptoms indicative of vaginal candidiasis. What is the pharmacist’s recommendation?

A. No need for any medicine as JT is taking Nitrofurantoin
B. Discontinue Nitrofurantoin as vaginal candidiasis is a side effect
C. Single dose of Fluconazole
D. Cotrimazole 1%
E. Miconazole 2%

Question 12: Betacarotene is a precursor of vitamin A. The chemical reaction involved in the formation of vitamin A is known as:

A. Oxidative deamination
B. Hydrolysis
C. Oxidative cleavage
D. Reduction
E. Azo reduction

Question 13: Sumatriptan is structurally related to which of the following?

A. Tryptamine
B. Histidine
C. Methionine
D. Leucine
E. Isoleucine

Question 14: JT is a young mom who comes to the pharmacy with her 18-month-old child. JT told the pharmacist that the baby is frequently experiencing symptoms that are indicative of recurrent otitis media for 3 weeks. Based on the given information, answer the following questions.

Question 14.1: Which of the following is the causative agent?

A. H. influenza
B. N. meningitis
C. S. pneumonia
D. S. aureus
E. P. aeruginosa

Question 14.2: Which of the following would be the pharmacist’s recommendation?

A. Amoxicillin for 10 days
B. Amoxicillin + clavulanate for 10 days
C. Hydroxychloroquine for 7 days
D. Rifampicin for 5 days
E. Clindamycin for 14 days

Question 15: What is the mechanism by which monoclonal antibodies are absorbed?

A. Hepatic and Portal circulation
B. Lymphatic circulation and blood
C. Pulmonary circulation
D. Active transport via hepatic circulation
E. Endocytosis via pulmonary circulation

Question 16: What is the mechanism of action of Tacrolimus?

A. IL - 2 inhibitor
B. B-cell depletor
C. TNF alpha inhibitor
D. IL - 1 inhibitor
E. IL - 5 inhibitor

Question 17: Which of the following vitamins are vegan people usually found to be deficient of?

A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin B6

Question 18: Which of the following is the most abundant in adaptive immunity?

A. Natural Killer Cells
B. Antibodies
C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
E. Neutrophils

Question 19: PEGFilgrastim is produced by conjugating Filgrastim with PEG. Why is Filgrastim conjugated with PEG?

A. Increases the half life of Filgrastim
B. Decreases the half life of Filgrastim
C. Reduces the side effects of Filgrastim
D. Increases the dosing interval
E. Reduces the dosing frequency

Question 20: Why is PEG added to a suppository base?

A. PEG reduces the melting point of the drug
B. PEG improves the stability of the drug
C. PEG increases the wettability
D. PEG gives a smooth texture to suppository
E. PEG is not added to suppository base

Question 21: JT is taking Dabigatran as a prophylaxis for Atrial fibrillation. Now she is experiencing symptoms like bloody or tarry stools, dark or pink-coloured urine, and prolonged bleeding. These symptoms are conclusive of a Dabigatran overdose. What is the pharmacist’s recommendation?

A. Andexanet
B. Deferoxamine
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
E. Idarucizumab

Question 22: Which of the following antidepressants has the highest Q_T prolongation?

A. Citalopram
B. Sertraline
C. Venlafaxine
D. Mirtazapine
E. Moclobemide

Question 23: Which of the following drugs cause Tardive dyskinesia?

A. Citalopram
B. Duloxetine
C. Haloperidol
D. Mirtazapine
E. Donepezil

Question 24: Which of the following statements is correct about volume of distribution?

A) The total volume of blood in the body.
B) Ratio of dose and plasma concentration
C) The volume of urine produced by the kidneys per hour.
D) The volume of the liver where drug metabolism occurs.
E) The volume of the gastrointestinal tract where drug absorption occurs.

Question 25: JT is a 16-year-old teen who was prescribed Salbutamol 2 puffs 2 times a day 1 month ago. Initially, the drug was working fine but all of a sudden, she felt that the medicine was not working. What is this called?

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Tolerance
C. Tachyphylaxis
D. Metastasis
E. Genetic polymorphism

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